Analyzing: What verse in this book would you challenge or defend?
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Re: Analyzing: What verse in this book would you challenge or defend?
Because Jesus knew that he would be turned over, and in Church reckoning he had to be. So why "watch"? There are many instances of mystic concepts, and mastership succession being overwritten. Most people don't pray for an hour. Most "watches" are three hours, also. "Fourth watch" in the walking on water miracle was 3 to 6 am, the best time and length to meditate.Dragonsend wrote: ↑20 Jun 2019, 15:44Dragonsend wrote: ↑20 Jun 2019, 15:38How do you know that to " remain awake" means meditation? Doesn't it just mean to remain awake??? Also doesn't watch and pray , it this context mean to watch and pray, this does not substantiate your meaning of meditation. The words are the words plain and simple. You specifically state these words to mean what you want!
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I would defend this but to avoid argument , I decline. I would have you know that I both meditate and pray and for at least 1 to 4 hours a day. I believe in God and I believe what the scriptures and the New Testament say. The last thing that I want in this world is to argue over God. I believe the story of Jesus and I know that by doing the things that God instructed has made my life peaceful, blessed beyond belief, joyful and full of Grace.Sahansdal wrote: ↑23 Jul 2019, 10:01Because Jesus knew that he would be turned over, and in Church reckoning he had to be. So why "watch"? There are many instances of mystic concepts, and mastership succession being overwritten. Most people don't pray for an hour. Most "watches" are three hours, also. "Fourth watch" in the walking on water miracle was 3 to 6 am, the best time and length to meditate.Dragonsend wrote: ↑20 Jun 2019, 15:44Dragonsend wrote: ↑20 Jun 2019, 15:38
How do you know that to " remain awake" means meditation? Doesn't it just mean to remain awake??? Also doesn't watch and pray , it this context mean to watch and pray, this does not substantiate your meaning of meditation. The words are the words plain and simple. You specifically state these words to mean what you want!
When Jesus was being refuted the times called for a change of the churches becoming too greedy: slavery, illness, poverty were out of control and when that was questioned it was answered by self- serving questions. So I still believe in Jesus as the Christ and I serve God. I don't want to argue when nobarguement is required. I know preachers and priests and clergy as you know masters.

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Quite frankly, I am stepping away from this discussion, but I don't really believe in any context, that the story of Judas and Jesus were misrepresented. No matter the history of the church etc., etc, etc. I believe that these stories and the way they were told and translated and anything that has been lost since then are guileless. I guess I don't believe that they are mystical writings but spiritual ones. Sorry, but I don't want to haggle over translations. God Bless you!Dragonsend wrote: ↑20 Jun 2019, 15:57I am sorry I understand what an idiom is. "For even the man of my peace, the one whom I trusted, who ate my bread, hath greatly supplanted me." Sorry even with the word supplanted, the tense of this sentence and with the previous line still makes this negative.Sahansdal wrote: ↑19 Jun 2019, 22:24Some others here are agreeing with you on this, so I must set the record straight. I don't literally translate this verse! The Douay Rheims version is the best. It is an idiom. Only then can one see the real intent of the passage. "For even the man of my peace, the one whom I trusted, who ate my bread, hath greatly supplanted me." It is a replacement dynamic, which only the Catholic Douay Rheims got right. The author may have known what he was doing with this double meaning, but it surely isn't meant to be a negative in the final analysis. This is a positive passage overall, about mastership succession. Judas covers the successor, who would naturally in the real world be the subject at this juncture, with 'Jesus' about to leave the scene. Masters always have successors.Dragonsend wrote: ↑14 May 2019, 16:34 "He has raised his heel against me." His version would literally say He has raised Jacob against me. He then says no that meant James, then goes on to say no that's Judas. So the discrepancies in translation here are truly a stretch!! That was truly a head scratcher for me. And many places where it says that Jesus was talking about James. Or Judas. When it clearly says he Jesus. Just for clarity heel and Jacob have similar meanings.
See John 9:4-5 in the original C. Sinaiticus version with "sent US" in 9:4. 'When NO ONE can work' means even the Master!

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Dragonsend wrote: ↑23 Jul 2019, 21:32Quite frankly, I am stepping away from this discussion, but I don't really believe in any context, that the story of Judas and Jesus were misrepresented. No matter the history of the church etc., etc, etc. I believe that these stories and the way they were told and translated and anything that has been lost since then are guileless. I guess I don't believe that they are mystical writings but spiritual ones. Sorry, but I don't want to haggle over translations and I believe that he raised his heel against me , the idiom would be understood then and now to meean just that, that he has done something against that person,Dragonsend wrote: ↑20 Jun 2019, 15:57I am sorry I understand what an idiom is. "For even the man of my peace, the one whom I trusted, who ate my bread, hath greatly supplanted me." Sorry even with the word supplanted, the tense of this sentence and with the previous line still makes this negative.Sahansdal wrote: ↑19 Jun 2019, 22:24
Some others here are agreeing with you on this, so I must set the record straight. I don't literally translate this verse! The Douay Rheims version is the best. It is an idiom. Only then can one see the real intent of the passage. "For even the man of my peace, the one whom I trusted, who ate my bread, hath greatly supplanted me." It is a replacement dynamic, which only the Catholic Douay Rheims got right. The author may have known what he was doing with this double meaning, but it surely isn't meant to be a negative in the final analysis. This is a positive passage overall, about mastership succession. Judas covers the successor, who would naturally in the real world be the subject at this juncture, with 'Jesus' about to leave the scene. Masters always have successors.
See John 9:4-5 in the original C. Sinaiticus version with "sent US" in 9:4. 'When NO ONE can work' means even the Master!
God Bless you!

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Every single one of the stories in the OT is mystical allegory. Every one of the miracles and parables in the NT is mystical allegory. https://www.amazon.com/Mystic-Bible-Ran ... stic+bibleDragonsend wrote: ↑23 Jul 2019, 21:32Quite frankly, I am stepping away from this discussion, but I don't really believe in any context, that the story of Judas and Jesus were misrepresented. No matter the history of the church etc., etc, etc. I believe that these stories and the way they were told and translated and anything that has been lost since then are guileless. I guess I don't believe that they are mystical writings but spiritual ones. Sorry, but I don't want to haggle over translations. God Bless you!Dragonsend wrote: ↑20 Jun 2019, 15:57I am sorry I understand what an idiom is. "For even the man of my peace, the one whom I trusted, who ate my bread, hath greatly supplanted me." Sorry even with the word supplanted, the tense of this sentence and with the previous line still makes this negative.Sahansdal wrote: ↑19 Jun 2019, 22:24
Some others here are agreeing with you on this, so I must set the record straight. I don't literally translate this verse! The Douay Rheims version is the best. It is an idiom. Only then can one see the real intent of the passage. "For even the man of my peace, the one whom I trusted, who ate my bread, hath greatly supplanted me." It is a replacement dynamic, which only the Catholic Douay Rheims got right. The author may have known what he was doing with this double meaning, but it surely isn't meant to be a negative in the final analysis. This is a positive passage overall, about mastership succession. Judas covers the successor, who would naturally in the real world be the subject at this juncture, with 'Jesus' about to leave the scene. Masters always have successors.
See John 9:4-5 in the original C. Sinaiticus version with "sent US" in 9:4. 'When NO ONE can work' means even the Master!
And every one is about meditation on Word. (I am glad you meditate.) Meditation on a living Master's Word is salvation. That Master must be living concurrently with the disciple. John 6:40 is CLEAR. There can be no salvation without seeing the Master. John 9:4-5 is likewise limiting. So is John 14:7 as to who "The Way of Jesus" was for. Only living Masters save! It will never change from that into "I believe and am therefore saved." ('Saved' is saved from rebirth, not saved from death.)
Masters have come since at least Seth. They never started nor stopped with any "Jesus." He is a myth created expressly to hide the real master of the day, James, because he was a threat to the sole-savior idea of the Pauline faction which was in a duel to the death with Jamesians. Paul killed James.
http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/anf08.v ... i.lxx.html
If this is glossed over (Acts 7 and "Stephen" is Paul killing James, if you are familiar with Dr. Eisenman), what does it say about the rest of the story? Why cover up the killing of the Lord's brother? Or make up a story about the Betrayal of Christ? I proved it could not happen as the Bible says.
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Dragonsend wrote: ↑23 Jul 2019, 21:32Quite frankly, I am stepping away from this discussion, but I don't really believe in any context, that the story of Judas and Jesus were misrepresented. No matter the history of the church etc., etc, etc. I believe that these stories and the way they were told and translated and anything that has been lost since then are guileless. I guess I don't believe that they are mystical writings but spiritual ones. Sorry, but I don't wantDragonsend wrote: ↑20 Jun 2019, 15:57I am sorry I understand what an idiom is. "For even the man of my peace, the one whom I trusted, who ate my bread, hath greatly supplanted me." Sorry even with the word supplanted, the tense of this sentence and with the previous line still makes this negative.Sahansdal wrote: ↑19 Jun 2019, 22:24
Some others here are agreeing with you on this, so I must set the record straight. I don't literally translate this verse! The Douay Rheims version is the best. It is an idiom. Only then can one see the real intent of the passage. "For even the man of my peace, the one whom I trusted, who ate my bread, hath greatly supplanted me." It is a replacement dynamic, which only the Catholic Douay Rheims got right. The author may have known what he was doing with this double meaning, but it surely isn't meant to be a negative in the final analysis. This is a positive passage overall, about mastership succession. Judas covers the successor, who would naturally in the real world be the subject at this juncture, with 'Jesus' about to leave the scene. Masters always have successors.
See John 9:4-5 in the original C. Sinaiticus version with "sent US" in 9:4. 'When NO ONE can work' means even the Master!
to haggle over translations. God bless you!
Re:"Guileless" > Reading Dr. Bart Ehrman's The Orthodox Corruption of Scripture classic will cure that false notion right quick.
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Re: Guileless >Dragonsend wrote: ↑23 Jul 2019, 21:39Dragonsend wrote: ↑23 Jul 2019, 21:32Quite frankly, I am stepping away from this discussion, but I don't really believe in any context, that the story of Judas and Jesus were misrepresented. No matter the history of the church etc., etc, etc. I believe that these stories and the way they were told and translated and anything that has been lost since then are guileless. I guess I don't believe that they are mystical writings but spiritual ones. Sorry, but I don't want to haggle over translations and I believe that he raised his heel against me , the idiom would be understood then and now to meean just that, that he has done something against that person,Dragonsend wrote: ↑20 Jun 2019, 15:57
I am sorry I understand what an idiom is. "For even the man of my peace, the one whom I trusted, who ate my bread, hath greatly supplanted me." Sorry even with the word supplanted, the tense of this sentence and with the previous line still makes this negative.
God Bless you!
Read Dr. Ehrman's The Orthodox Corruption of Scripture.
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This was also my mind.Sahansdal wrote: ↑14 May 2019, 17:43referentDragonsend wrote: ↑14 May 2019, 16:37 "He has raised his heel against me." His version would literally say He has raised Jacob against me. He then says no that meant James, then goes on to say no that's Judas. So the discrepancies in translation here are truly a stretch!! That was truly a head scratcher for me. And many places where it says that Jesus was talking about James. Or Judas. When it clearly says he Jesus. Just for clarity heel and Jacob have similar meanings. It's so confusing I can barely write coherently about it!!!![]()