Are grammar errors related to clarity objective or subjective?
Posted: 04 Aug 2023, 10:49
As a newer reviewer for this site, I am still unsure what grammar errors are considered subjective and objective. Most of this uncertainty relates to a sentence's clarity. In a book I am reading, there are several sentences that I know could be more refined and clearer. However, I am unsure if this subjective or not. For example, one sentence reads, "Two great dynasties followed, but neither one compared, nor had ever any king compared to King Saint Idus." This sentence could be clearer if it read, "nor had any king ever" instead. Is this example an objective or subjective grammatical error? There are several similar sentences that could be refined as well if more examples are needed. Thank you for any help in advance.